Question 1 Topic 1.1 · Concept check
Water can absorb a lot of heat before its temperature rises much. Which explanation is best?
A Covalent bonds inside each water molecule break as heat is added. B Much of the added energy breaks hydrogen bonds between water molecules before the molecules can move faster. C Water is nonpolar, so heat spreads evenly through it. D Water molecules are heavier than most other small molecules.
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Question 2 Topic 1.2 · Experiment
Bacteria are grown in a medium where the only sulfur available is radioactive sulfur-35. After several generations, which type of molecule in the bacteria will contain the most radioactive label?
A DNA B Phospholipids C Starch D Proteins
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Question 3 Topic 1.3 · Concept check
When two amino acids are joined to form a dipeptide, which of the following also happens?
A A water molecule is used up. B A hydrogen bond forms between the two amino acids. C A water molecule is released. D The amino acids are broken into smaller monomers.
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Question 4 Topic 1.4 · Apply it
Starch and cellulose are both polymers of glucose, yet humans can digest starch but not cellulose. Which explanation is best supported?
A Cellulose is made of fructose, which human enzymes cannot recognise. B Cellulose contains nitrogen, which makes it too stable to break down. C Starch is a protein, so it is digested by different enzymes. D The glucose monomers are linked differently, and human enzymes cannot hydrolyse the linkages in cellulose.
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Question 5 Topic 1.5 · Data analysis
Two fats studied at 20 °C Fat C=C double bonds in fatty acid tails State at 20 °C A None Solid B Several, in the cis arrangement Liquid
Which claim best explains the difference between fats A and B?
A Fat B has more hydrogen atoms per carbon, which makes it a liquid. B Double bonds make fat B heavier, so its molecules spread out. C Kinks caused by cis double bonds stop fat B's tails from packing tightly, so it melts at a lower temperature. D Fat A is polar, so its molecules form hydrogen bonds and become solid.
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Question 6 Topic 1.6 · Concept check
Which difference between DNA and RNA is correct?
A DNA contains uracil, and RNA contains thymine. B RNA contains ribose and uracil, while DNA contains deoxyribose and thymine. C Only DNA nucleotides are joined by phosphodiester bonds. D RNA nucleotides have no phosphate group.
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Question 7 Topic 2.1 · Apply it
Cells in the pancreas secrete large amounts of digestive enzymes, which are proteins. Which organelles would you expect these cells to have in unusually large amounts?
A Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus B Smooth endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes C Large central vacuoles and chloroplasts D Peroxisomes and a cell wall
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Question 8 Topic 2.1 · Concept check
Which statement about ribosomes is correct?
A Ribosomes are found only in eukaryotic cells, because they are membrane-bound organelles. B Ribosomes are found in all cells, because all cells must make proteins. C Ribosomes are found only on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. D Ribosomes store genetic information that is copied during cell division.
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Question 9 Topic 2.3 · Concept check
Which substance can most easily cross a phospholipid bilayer without help from a membrane protein?
A Sodium ions (Na⁺) B Glucose C Oxygen (O₂) D A small protein hormone
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Question 10 Topic 2.5 · Concept check
The sodium–potassium pump moves 3 Na⁺ out of a cell and 2 K⁺ into the cell for each ATP used. Which statement describes this transport?
A It is facilitated diffusion, because a protein is involved. B It is osmosis, because ions move with water. C It moves Na⁺ into the cell, down its concentration gradient. D It is active transport, because both ions move against their concentration gradients.
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Question 11 Topic 2.6 · Data analysis
Glucose uptake by red blood cells (no ATP is used by this transporter) Glucose outside the cell (mM) Uptake rate (relative units) 1 20 2 38 5 70 10 88 20 95 40 96
Which explanation best accounts for the uptake rate levelling off at high glucose concentrations?
A Glucose diffuses directly through the bilayer, which becomes full. B The cells run out of ATP needed to power the transporter. C The glucose carrier proteins are all occupied, so adding more glucose cannot increase the rate. D The concentration gradient reverses at high glucose concentrations.
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Question 12 Topic 2.7 · Data analysis
A plant cell has a water potential of −0.6 MPa. It is placed in a solution with a water potential of −0.2 MPa.
Which way will water move?
A Out of the cell, because the cell has the lower water potential. B No net movement, because both values are negative. C Into the cell, from higher water potential (−0.2 MPa) to lower water potential (−0.6 MPa). D Solutes will move instead of water.
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Question 13 Topic 2.9 · Apply it
Lysosomes keep powerful digestive enzymes at an acidic pH, separated from the rest of the cytoplasm. What advantage does this give the cell?
A It lets incompatible conditions and reactions exist in the same cell at the same time. B It increases the overall volume of the cell. C It lets the enzymes move freely through the cytoplasm. D It removes the need for a plasma membrane.
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Question 14 Topic 3.1 · Concept check
How does an enzyme speed up a chemical reaction?
A It lowers the activation energy needed for the reaction. B It makes the reaction release more free energy. C It is used up as a reactant in the reaction. D It supplies the energy needed to start the reaction.
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Question 15 Topic 3.1 · Experiment
A molecule slows an enzyme-catalysed reaction by binding to the enzyme's active site. A student adds much more substrate and the reaction rate returns almost to normal. What kind of inhibitor is this most likely to be?
A An irreversible inhibitor that permanently destroys the active site B A noncompetitive inhibitor that binds away from the active site C A competitive inhibitor that competes with the substrate for the active site D A cofactor that is required for the enzyme to work
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Question 16 Topic 3.2 · Apply it
Pepsin works best at about pH 2 in the stomach. When stomach contents move into the small intestine, where the pH is about 7–8, pepsin activity drops. Why?
A The change in pH alters the charges on the enzyme's R groups, changing the shape of the active site. B Pepsin is digested by water in the small intestine. C The higher pH supplies extra energy that overheats the enzyme. D Pepsin becomes a different protein at higher pH.
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Question 17 Topic 3.3 · Concept check
Cells use ATP to drive reactions that would not happen on their own. How does ATP usually do this?
A Forming a bond between phosphate groups releases energy that drives the reaction. B ATP heats the cell, so all reactions run faster. C ATP hydrolysis is coupled to the reaction, often by transferring a phosphate group to a reactant. D ATP acts as an enzyme that lowers activation energy.
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Question 18 Topic 3.4 · Experiment
Leaf disks are vacuum-infiltrated so they sink in a baking-soda solution, then placed under lamps of different brightness. Disks under the brightest lamp float soonest. Which explanation is best?
A Brighter light increases cellular respiration, producing CO₂ that makes the disks float. B Brighter light increases the rate of photosynthesis, so O₂ builds up in the leaf's air spaces faster. C The lamp heats the solution, making it denser than the disks. D Light breaks down the disks' cell walls, making them lighter.
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Question 19 Topic 3.4 · Concept check
Which statement correctly describes the Calvin cycle?
A It takes place in the thylakoid membranes and releases oxygen. B It uses ATP made by cellular respiration to split water. C It produces the ATP and NADPH that the light reactions need. D It takes place in the stroma and uses ATP and NADPH from the light reactions to fix CO₂ into sugar.
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Question 20 Topic 3.5 · Experiment
Cyanide blocks the final protein complex of the electron transport chain, so electrons can no longer be passed to oxygen. Which outcome is most likely in a cell exposed to cyanide?
A Glycolysis stops immediately because it needs oxygen. B Oxygen consumption increases as the cell tries to compensate. C Oxygen consumption falls, the proton gradient is not maintained, and ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation drops. D ATP production increases because protons build up in the matrix.
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Question 21 Topic 3.5 · Concept check
What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration?
A NAD⁺ B Oxygen, which is reduced to water C Carbon dioxide D Pyruvate
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Question 22 Topic 4.1 · Concept check
Insulin is released by cells in the pancreas, travels through the bloodstream, and affects muscle and liver cells. What type of signaling is this?
A Paracrine signaling B Signaling through direct cell-to-cell contact C Autocrine signaling D Endocrine signaling
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Question 23 Topic 4.2 · Apply it
Testosterone is a steroid hormone that binds to a receptor inside its target cells. Why can it reach this receptor while a protein hormone such as insulin cannot?
A Testosterone is nonpolar, so it can diffuse across the plasma membrane's lipid bilayer. B Testosterone is larger than insulin, so it is taken in by endocytosis. C Testosterone is carried in by the sodium–potassium pump. D Insulin is destroyed by the cell membrane before it can enter.
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Question 24 Topic 4.3 · Apply it
A very small amount of epinephrine can cause liver cells to release a large amount of glucose within seconds. Which feature of signal transduction best explains this?
A Each epinephrine molecule enters the cell and breaks down glycogen directly. B Each step in the pathway activates many molecules, so the signal is amplified. C Epinephrine is converted into glucose inside the liver cell. D The receptor makes copies of epinephrine inside the cell.
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Question 25 Topic 4.3 · Apply it
Ras is a G protein that relays signals from growth factor receptors. A mutation makes Ras unable to hydrolyse GTP, so it stays in its active form. What is the most likely effect on the cell?
A The cell stops responding to growth factors and never divides. B The cell divides only when growth factor concentration is very high. C The cell becomes unable to make proteins. D The pathway signals continuously, so the cell may divide even without growth factors.
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Question 26 Topic 4.4 · Apply it
TSH from the pituitary stimulates the thyroid to release thyroid hormone. High levels of thyroid hormone reduce TSH release. If a person takes thyroid hormone pills, what will most likely happen to their TSH level?
A It will rise, because the thyroid needs more stimulation. B It will fall, because high thyroid hormone inhibits TSH release. C It will not change, because the pills bypass the pituitary. D It will rise and fall in a positive feedback loop.
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Question 27 Topic 4.5 · Concept check
During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A G₁ phase B M phase C S phase D G₂ phase
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Question 28 Topic 4.5 · Data analysis
DNA content of cells from a dividing tissue (G₁ cells set at 1 unit) Group DNA per cell (relative units) Share of cells X 1 60% Y between 1 and 2 15% Z 2 25%
Which phases are the cells in group Z most likely in?
A G₁, just after division B S, while DNA is being copied C Cytokinesis has just finished D G₂ or M, after DNA has been replicated but before the cell divides
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Question 29 Topic 4.6 · Concept check
Which statement best describes how cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) control the cell cycle?
A CDK levels rise and fall, while cyclins stay constant and are always active. B Cyclins replicate DNA, and CDKs separate chromosomes. C CDKs are present throughout the cycle but are active only when bound to cyclins, whose levels rise and fall. D Cyclins and CDKs are only found in cancer cells.
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Question 30 Topic 5.1 · Concept check
Which statement correctly describes the result of meiosis in a diploid organism?
A Two diploid cells identical to the parent B Four haploid cells that are genetically different from each other C Four diploid cells identical to the parent D Two haploid cells identical to each other
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Question 31 Topic 5.1 · Apply it
A person with Down syndrome has three copies of chromosome 21. Which error during gamete formation can cause this?
A Crossing over between chromosome 21 and chromosome 22 B A point mutation in a gene on chromosome 21 C Extra DNA replication during S phase of mitosis D Nondisjunction, where a chromosome 21 pair or its sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis
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Question 32 Topic 5.2 · Concept check
During which stage does crossing over occur, and what does it produce?
A Prophase I; chromatids with new combinations of alleles B Anaphase II; identical sister chromatids C Metaphase of mitosis; extra chromosomes D Telophase I; new mutations in every gene
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Question 33 Topic 5.3 · Data analysis
Offspring of a cross between two plants heterozygous for flower colour Phenotype Observed Expected (3 : 1) Purple 290 300 White 110 100
A student calculates chi-square to test whether the results fit a 3:1 ratio. The critical value for 1 degree of freedom at p = 0.05 is 3.84. Which conclusion is correct?
A χ² = 1.33, so the student fails to reject the 3:1 hypothesis; the difference can be explained by chance. B χ² = 1.33, so the student rejects the 3:1 hypothesis. C χ² = 20, so the student rejects the 3:1 hypothesis. D χ² cannot be calculated because the observed and expected totals are the same.
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Question 34 Topic 5.4 · Data analysis
In a test cross, only 8% of offspring show recombinant combinations of two traits, instead of the 50% expected for independent assortment. What is the best explanation?
A The genes are on different chromosomes and assort independently. B The genes are close together on the same chromosome, so crossing over rarely separates them. C The traits are controlled by mitochondrial genes. D Both genes are sex-linked, so recombination cannot happen.
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Question 35 Topic 5.5 · Apply it
Cuttings from one hydrangea plant are planted in soils with different pH. The flowers are blue in acidic soil and pink in alkaline soil. What does this show?
A The cuttings mutated after they were planted. B Flower colour is determined only by the plant's genotype. C The plants must have different alleles for flower colour. D The same genotype can produce different phenotypes in different environments.
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Question 36 Topic 6.1 · Data analysis
In a sample of double-stranded DNA, 30% of the bases are adenine. What percentage are guanine?
A 30% B 70% C 20% D 40%
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Question 37 Topic 6.2 · Experiment
Bacteria are grown for many generations with heavy nitrogen (¹⁵N), then moved to normal nitrogen (¹⁴N) and allowed to replicate their DNA exactly once. If replication is semiconservative, what will DNA extracted from them look like when separated by density?
A Half heavy DNA and half light DNA B All heavy DNA C All light DNA D All DNA at an intermediate density, between heavy and light
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Question 38 Topic 6.3 · Data analysis
A eukaryotic gene is 8,000 nucleotides long, but the mature mRNA made from it is about 3,000 nucleotides long. What best explains the difference?
A Only one DNA strand is transcribed, which halves the length. B Introns are removed from the pre-mRNA by splicing. C The 5′ cap and poly-A tail shorten the mRNA. D Ribosomes trim the mRNA as they translate it.
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Question 39 Topic 6.3 · Apply it
A template DNA strand reads 3′-TAC-5′. Which mRNA sequence is transcribed from it?
A 5′-ATG-3′ B 3′-AUG-5′ C 5′-AUG-3′ D 5′-UAC-3′
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Question 40 Topic 6.4 · Apply it
Which tRNA anticodon pairs with the mRNA codon 5′-AUG-3′?
A 5′-AUG-3′ B 3′-UAC-5′ C 3′-TAC-5′ D 5′-UAC-3′
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Question 41 Topic 6.5 · Apply it
E. coli is grown with lactose and no glucose. What happens at the lac operon?
A A form of lactose binds the repressor, the repressor releases the operator, and the lac genes are transcribed. B Lactose binds the operator directly and blocks transcription. C The repressor binds the operator more tightly, so lac genes stay off. D The cell mutates the lac genes so it can digest lactose.
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Question 42 Topic 6.6 · Concept check
A person's nerve cells and muscle cells look and work very differently. What best explains this?
A Each cell type has lost the genes it does not need. B Nerve and muscle cells contain different chromosomes. C Different mutations happen in each cell type during development. D Both contain the same genes, but different transcription factors switch on different sets of genes.
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Question 43 Topic 6.7 · Apply it
Which mutation near the start of a protein-coding sequence is most likely to change the protein the most?
A Substitution of one base that changes a codon to another codon for the same amino acid B Substitution of one base that changes one amino acid C Insertion of one base, which shifts the reading frame D Insertion of three bases, which adds one amino acid
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Question 44 Topic 7.1 · Concept check
Which statement about evolution by natural selection is accurate?
A Individuals change their genes during their lifetime to suit their environment. B Populations evolve as heritable traits that improve survival and reproduction become more common. C Organisms develop new traits because they need them. D Natural selection always produces organisms that are perfectly adapted.
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Question 45 Topic 7.2 · Apply it
In a region where tree bark was darkened by soot, dark-coloured moths became much more common than light-coloured moths over several decades. Which explanation is best?
A Soot on the moths' bodies caused them to produce darker offspring. B Light moths chose to become dark to hide from predators. C Dark moths were less visible to birds on dark bark, so more survived to reproduce and pass on the allele for dark colour. D Soot caused mutations that made the moths dark.
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Question 46 Topic 7.3 · Concept check
Broccoli, cabbage and kale were all bred from a single species of wild mustard. What process produced these varieties?
A Artificial selection, where humans chose which plants would reproduce B Genetic drift in small wild populations C Natural selection by insect pollinators D Gene flow from other plant species
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Question 47 Topic 7.4 · Apply it
A storm randomly kills 90% of a small island population of lizards. Afterwards, an allele that was rare has become common, even though it gives no survival advantage. What best explains this?
A Natural selection favoured the rare allele. B Gene flow from the mainland added the allele. C The storm caused mutations that produced the allele. D A bottleneck: by chance, the survivors carried different allele frequencies from the original population.
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Question 48 Topic 7.5 · Concept check
Which condition is required for a population to stay in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
A Natural selection favouring one allele B A very large population size C Individuals migrating in from other populations D Individuals choosing mates with similar traits
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Question 49 Topic 7.6 · Apply it
A human arm, a bat wing and a whale flipper have the same arrangement of bones, though they are used differently. What do these structures most strongly suggest?
A They are homologous structures inherited from a common ancestor. B They are analogous structures that evolved separately for the same function. C Each animal developed these bones because it needed them for its lifestyle. D The animals are not related, because the structures have different functions.
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Question 50 Topic 7.7 · Concept check
Which observation provides strong evidence that all living organisms share a common ancestor?
A Many animals live in similar environments. B All organisms are the same size at the cellular level. C Nearly all organisms use DNA and the same genetic code to make proteins. D All organisms reproduce sexually.
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Question 51 Topic 7.9 · Data analysis
Number of differences in a 300-base DNA sequence Species pair Differences A and B 2 A and C 10 B and C 11
Which conclusion about how species A, B and C are related is best supported by the data?
A B and C are more closely related to each other than either is to A. B A and B share a more recent common ancestor with each other than either does with C. C C is the ancestor of A and B. D A is the ancestor of B, because they differ by only 2 bases.
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Question 52 Topic 7.10 · Apply it
Two populations of frogs live in the same pond. One breeds in early spring and the other in late spring, so they never interbreed. What kind of reproductive barrier is this?
A A postzygotic barrier, such as hybrid sterility B Geographic isolation C A prezygotic barrier: temporal isolation D Gametic isolation
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Question 53 Topic 7.11 · Apply it
A crop is grown worldwide from genetically identical clones. A new fungal disease appears. Why is this crop at greater risk than a wild population of the same species?
A Clones grow more slowly, so they are weaker. B With no genetic variation, if one plant is susceptible all are, so no individuals are likely to survive and reproduce. C Clones produce more seeds, which spread the disease. D Wild plants can develop resistance on purpose when they detect the fungus.
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Question 54 Topic 8.1 · Concept check
Some plants flower only when the night is longer than a critical length. What is this response called?
A Phototropism B Photoperiodism C Gravitropism D Thigmotropism
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Question 55 Topic 8.2 · Data analysis
Producers in an ecosystem capture 10,000 kcal of energy. About how much energy is available to tertiary consumers, the fourth trophic level?
A 1,000 kcal B 100 kcal C 10 kcal D 3,333 kcal
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Question 56 Topic 8.2 · Apply it
A mouse and a lizard have the same body mass. Why does the mouse need much more food per day?
A The mouse is an endotherm and uses a lot of energy from food to keep its body temperature constant. B The lizard makes its own food by photosynthesis. C The lizard is larger, so it needs less energy. D Mice digest food less completely than lizards.
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Question 57 Topic 8.4 · Apply it
A population's growth slows as it approaches the environment's carrying capacity. Which factor most likely causes this?
A A hurricane that kills the same proportion of individuals at any population size B Increasing competition for food as the population gets denser C A rise in the maximum per capita growth rate D A volcanic eruption
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Question 58 Topic 8.5 · Apply it
Sea otters eat sea urchins, and sea urchins eat kelp. If sea otters are removed from a coastal ecosystem, what is the most likely result?
A Sea urchin numbers fall and kelp forests grow. B Both sea urchins and kelp increase. C Sea urchin numbers rise and kelp forests shrink. D Nothing changes, because otters are only a small part of the ecosystem.
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Question 59 Topic 8.5 · Experiment
Two species of protist that eat the same bacteria, grown in identical flasks Flask Species P after 16 days Species Q after 16 days P alone Stable population — Q alone — Stable population P and Q together Stable population Died out
Which conclusion is best supported by these results?
A Species P and Q compete for the same limited resource, and P outcompetes Q. B Species P preys on species Q. C Species Q cannot survive in these flasks under any conditions. D Species P and Q have a mutualistic relationship.
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Question 60 Topic 8.7 · Data analysis
Concentration of a persistent pesticide in a lake food chain Organism Concentration (ppm) Water 0.00005 Algae 0.04 Small fish 0.5 Large fish 2 Fish-eating birds 25
Which process best explains the pattern in the table?
A Eutrophication, because the pesticide adds nutrients to the lake B Biomagnification, because the pesticide is stored in tissues and becomes more concentrated at each trophic level C Nitrogen fixation, because the pesticide is converted by bacteria D Energy flow, because energy increases at higher trophic levels
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